UPSC Current Affairs Quiz — 13 October 2026

1.

Consider the following statements about the Traditional Artisans' Upliftment Livelihood Programme (TULIP):

1.It is a Social Justice and Empowerment Ministry initiative for artisans from disadvantaged groups.

2.Its support goes beyond exhibitions to digital marketing, logistics and quality checks.

3.It gives artisans in 18 family-based trades collateral-free loans and a toolkit grant.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Bharat TULIP: Artisan Brand Seeks Buyers Beyond the Mysuru Mela Open full article →

2.

Consider the following corporations:

1.National Scheduled Castes Finance and Development Corporation

2.National Backward Classes Finance and Development Corporation

3.National Safai Karamcharis Finance and Development Corporation

4.National Scheduled Tribes Finance and Development Corporation

How many of the above function under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment?

Only one Only two Only three All four

From: Bharat TULIP: Artisan Brand Seeks Buyers Beyond the Mysuru Mela Open full article →

3.

Consider the following statements:

1.The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is a constitutional body under Article 338.

2.The National Commission for Backward Classes got constitutional status from the 102nd Amendment.

3.Article 338 treats references to Scheduled Castes as including the Anglo-Indian community.

4.The Speaker of the Lok Sabha appoints the members of both these Commissions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 only

From: Bharat TULIP: Artisan Brand Seeks Buyers Beyond the Mysuru Mela Open full article →

4.

Consider the following statements about the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis:

1.It was first constituted in 1994 as a statutory body under an Act of Parliament.

2.It now functions as a non-statutory body whose tenure is extended through Government Resolutions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2

From: Bharat TULIP: Artisan Brand Seeks Buyers Beyond the Mysuru Mela Open full article →

5.

Consider the following statements about Namdapha Tiger Reserve:

1.It lies in Changlang district of Arunachal Pradesh, along the international boundary with Myanmar.

2.It adjoins Kamlang Tiger Reserve, also in Arunachal Pradesh.

3.The Noa-Dihing river, which flows through it, is a tributary of the Irrawaddy.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Namdapha Tiger Reserve: Staff Cite Six Months of Wage Arrears Open full article →

6.

Consider the following statements about a bird of Arunachal Pradesh:

1.It is the State bird of Arunachal Pradesh.

2.When nesting, the female seals herself inside a tree cavity with mud and droppings, and the male feeds her through a narrow slit.

3.It is assessed as Vulnerable on the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.

Which one of the following is the bird described above?

Rufous-necked hornbill White-winged wood duck Blyth's tragopan Great hornbill

From: Namdapha Tiger Reserve: Staff Cite Six Months of Wage Arrears Open full article →

7.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Namdapha Tiger Reserve contains both tropical evergreen forest and alpine vegetation.

Statement-II: Elevation within the reserve ranges from about 200 metres to over 4,500 metres.

Statement-III: The white-winged wood duck is among the birds recorded in the reserve.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I Only one of Statement-II and Statement-III is correct and that is the explanation of Statement-I Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct

From: Namdapha Tiger Reserve: Staff Cite Six Months of Wage Arrears Open full article →

8.

Consider the following statements about Namdapha Tiger Reserve:

1.It lies at the junction of the Indian subcontinent and Indo-Chinese biogeographic regions.

2.Its tropical wet evergreen forests are dominated by Dipterocarpus species.

3.The Namdapha flying squirrel was first described from the reserve.

4.The tiger is the only large cat recorded in the reserve.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only

From: Namdapha Tiger Reserve: Staff Cite Six Months of Wage Arrears Open full article →

9.

Consider the following statements about the India-Brazil-South Africa (IBSA) Dialogue Forum:

1.It was formalised by the Brasilia Declaration issued by the three Foreign Ministers in 2003.

2.Its IBSA Fund is managed by the United Nations Office for South-South Cooperation.

3.The IBSA Fund supports development projects in partner countries, most of them Least Developed Countries.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: IBSAMAR IX: Three Navies Open the Exercise at Simon's Town Open full article →

10.

Consider the following groupings:

1.BRICS

2.Group of Twenty (G20)

3.Indian Ocean Rim Association

4.Commonwealth of Nations

In how many of the above are India, Brazil and South Africa all members?

Only one Only two Only three All four

From: IBSAMAR IX: Three Navies Open the Exercise at Simon's Town Open full article →

11.

A naval exercise opened at Simon's Town, near Cape Town. Consider the following statements:

1.The Benguela Current off south-western Africa is a cold current.

2.The Agulhas Current off south-eastern Africa is a cold current.

3.Cape Agulhas, not the Cape of Good Hope, is Africa's southernmost point.

4.A cold offshore current adds to the aridity of the coastal Namib Desert.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only

From: IBSAMAR IX: Three Navies Open the Exercise at Simon's Town Open full article →

12.

Under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), consider the following statements:

1.A warship may board a foreign merchant ship on the high seas if it reasonably suspects piracy.

2.Suspected drug trafficking is among the Convention's grounds for a warship to board a foreign ship on the high seas.

3.Every State may seize a pirate ship on the high seas.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: IBSAMAR IX: Three Navies Open the Exercise at Simon's Town Open full article →

13.

Consider the following statements about the Thermal Infra-Red Imaging Satellite for High-resolution Natural Resource Assessment (TRISHNA):

1.Its thermal infrared payload is Indian-built; its other payload is French-built.

2.It is a joint mission of the Indian and French space agencies.

3.Its intended uses include assessing irrigation water use and mapping urban heat islands.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: TRISHNA: Thermal Satellite Launch Projected Within 12-16 Months Open full article →

14.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Thermal Infra-Red Imaging Satellite for High-resolution Natural Resource Assessment (TRISHNA) is designed to cross the equator at about 12:30 local time on each daytime pass.

Statement-II: TRISHNA is planned for a sun-synchronous orbit.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct

From: TRISHNA: Thermal Satellite Launch Projected Within 12-16 Months Open full article →

15.

Match List I with List II:

List I (Resolution in remote sensing)

A. Spatial resolution

B. Spectral resolution

C. Temporal resolution

D. Radiometric resolution

List II (What it describes)

1.How often the same area is observed again

2.The ground area represented by each pixel

3.The number of bits recording the energy in each pixel

4.The number and narrowness of the wavelength bands recorded

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

From: TRISHNA: Thermal Satellite Launch Projected Within 12-16 Months Open full article →

16.

Consider the following statements about earlier Indo-French satellite missions:

1.Megha-Tropiques studied the water cycle and energy exchanges in the tropical atmosphere.

2.Megha-Tropiques flew in a sun-synchronous orbit.

3.The Satellite with Argos and AltiKa (SARAL) was designed to measure sea surface height with a French-built altimeter.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: TRISHNA: Thermal Satellite Launch Projected Within 12-16 Months Open full article →

17.

Consider the following statements:

1.A thrombus is a blood clot that forms inside a blood vessel.

2.An embolus is a thrombus that breaks loose and travels to block a vessel elsewhere.

3.Ischaemia is a shortage of blood supply to a tissue that can lead to tissue death if not relieved.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Coronary Thrombosis: How a Clot Can Cause a Heart Attack Open full article →

18.

Match List I with List II:

List I (Test)

A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)

B. Troponin blood test

C. Coronary angiography

D. Echocardiogram

List II (What it shows)

1.X-ray images of the heart's arteries after a contrast dye is injected

2.The electrical activity of the heart

3.Images of the heart made with ultrasound

4.A protein released into the blood when heart muscle cells are damaged

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

From: Coronary Thrombosis: How a Clot Can Cause a Heart Attack Open full article →

19.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Prompt use of an automated external defibrillator (AED) can save a person in sudden cardiac arrest.

Statement-II: Sudden cardiac arrest is commonly caused by ventricular fibrillation, a dangerous rhythm that a shock can restore to normal.

Statement-III: A defibrillator's shock dissolves the clot blocking a coronary artery.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I Only one of Statement-II and Statement-III is correct and that is the explanation of Statement-I Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct

From: Coronary Thrombosis: How a Clot Can Cause a Heart Attack Open full article →

20.

Consider the following statements about the clotting of blood:

1.The enzyme thrombin converts fibrinogen in the plasma into fibrin threads.

2.Platelets are cell fragments produced from megakaryocytes in the bone marrow.

3.The liver needs vitamin K to make several clotting factors.

4.Calcium ions play no part in clotting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 only

From: Coronary Thrombosis: How a Clot Can Cause a Heart Attack Open full article →

21.

Consider the following statements about the human heart:

1.Sympathetic nerve signals slow the heartbeat, while parasympathetic signals speed it up.

2.The heart is called myogenic because its rhythm is generated by specialised muscle tissue within it.

3.The sino-atrial node acts as the pacemaker of the heart.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Coronary Thrombosis: How a Clot Can Cause a Heart Attack Open full article →

22.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Air temperature generally falls with height in the lower atmosphere.

Statement-II: The lower atmosphere is heated mainly from below, by radiation from the Earth's surface.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct

From: Mount Mukut: Coast Guard Ascent Ahead of 2027 Everest Expedition Open full article →

23.

Consider the following statements about acclimatisation to high altitude:

1.Breathing increases steadily over the first few days at altitude, improving oxygenation.

2.Good physical fitness lowers a climber's risk of altitude illness.

3.Limiting the daily gain in sleeping altitude reduces the risk of altitude illness.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Mount Mukut: Coast Guard Ascent Ahead of 2027 Everest Expedition Open full article →

24.

Accounts of Himalayan expeditions often place camps on a 'col'. In mountain terrain, a col is best described as:

a deep, bowl-shaped hollow with steep walls at the head of a glacial valley a sharp, saw-toothed ridge left where the walls of neighbouring cirques are worn back a long ridge of unsorted debris laid down along the side or end of a glacier a low point on a ridge between two peaks, often linking the approaches to neighbouring valleys

From: Mount Mukut: Coast Guard Ascent Ahead of 2027 Everest Expedition Open full article →

25.

Consider the following statements about altitude illness:

1.Its most common form is acute mountain sickness, marked mainly by headache.

2.High-altitude cerebral oedema is an end-stage form of acute mountain sickness.

3.High-altitude pulmonary oedema occurs only with existing acute mountain sickness.

4.Acetazolamide is used to hasten acclimatisation and prevent acute mountain sickness.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only

From: Mount Mukut: Coast Guard Ascent Ahead of 2027 Everest Expedition Open full article →

26.

Consider the following statements about the Research, Development and Innovation (RDI) scheme:

1.A national fund gives capital to second-level fund managers, which then finance eligible technology enterprises.

2.Its money can finance basic research projects at any stage of maturity.

3.It does not fully finance a project; part must come from the proponent's own or commercial sources.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: RDI Fund: Rs 7,131 Crore Commitment for First 19 Fund Managers Open full article →

27.

Consider the following statements about the Anusandhan National Research Foundation:

1.It was established by an Act of Parliament in 2023.

2.The Prime Minister is the ex officio President of its Governing Board.

3.The Science and Engineering Research Board still exists alongside it as a statutory body.

4.The Principal Scientific Adviser chairs its Executive Council.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4

From: RDI Fund: Rs 7,131 Crore Commitment for First 19 Fund Managers Open full article →

28.

The Research, Development and Innovation (RDI) scheme supports projects at Technology Readiness Level (TRL) 4 and above. The TRL scale:

rates the expected market demand for a product on a scale of 1 to 9 runs from TRL 1 for a flight-proven system down to TRL 9 for basic research has nine levels, from TRL 1, where research is just beginning, to TRL 9, a technology proven in actual operation is a credit rating that lenders give to firms developing new technologies

From: RDI Fund: Rs 7,131 Crore Commitment for First 19 Fund Managers Open full article →

29.

Consider the following statements about Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) in India:

1.They are privately pooled vehicles that collect money from sophisticated investors.

2.Category II AIFs do not borrow except to meet day-to-day operational requirements.

3.Mutual funds regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) are a category of AIFs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: RDI Fund: Rs 7,131 Crore Commitment for First 19 Fund Managers Open full article →

30.

Consider the following statements:

1.Most support under the Research, Development and Innovation (RDI) scheme takes the form of long-term, low-interest loans, with equity only in select cases.

2.Under the RDI scheme, individual projects are chosen by the national fund itself rather than by the investment committees of the fund managers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2

From: RDI Fund: Rs 7,131 Crore Commitment for First 19 Fund Managers Open full article →

31.

Consider the following statements about the World Economic Outlook (WEO) of the International Monetary Fund (IMF):

1.Its world growth figure gives every member economy equal weight.

2.Full editions appear in April and October, with shorter Updates in January and July.

3.Forecasts for individual countries are prepared by IMF country teams and then combined into global aggregates.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: World Economic Outlook: IMF Raises 2026 Global Forecast to 3.1% Open full article →

32.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India's share of world output is larger when countries' gross domestic product (GDP) is compared at purchasing power parity (PPP) than at market exchange rates.

Statement-II: Non-traded goods and services tend to be cheaper in low-income countries, a difference that PPP comparisons take into account.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct

From: World Economic Outlook: IMF Raises 2026 Global Forecast to 3.1% Open full article →

33.

Consider the following statements about the International Monetary Fund (IMF):

1.It was conceived at the Bretton Woods Conference in July 1944.

2.A member's quota determines its voting power and access to IMF resources.

3.The Special Drawing Right (SDR) is a currency used by individuals to pay for goods.

4.For Article IV consultations, IMF staff typically visit each member every year.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only

From: World Economic Outlook: IMF Raises 2026 Global Forecast to 3.1% Open full article →

34.

Consider the following statements about gross domestic product (GDP):

1.The output of a foreign-owned factory located in India is counted in India's GDP.

2.A rise in GDP by itself shows that the overall well-being of a country's people has improved.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2

From: World Economic Outlook: IMF Raises 2026 Global Forecast to 3.1% Open full article →

35.

Consider the following statements about the 2026 Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) rule on prepaid call-and-text vouchers without data:

1.Operators must offer such vouchers matching their bundled vouchers of up to thirty days' validity.

2.Operators must offer one such voucher that renews on the same date each month.

3.TRAI has fixed a single national price for each such voucher.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: TRAI: Final Rule Widens Voice-and-SMS-Only Prepaid Choices Open full article →

36.

Consider the following statements about the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI):

1.When the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal was created in 2000, TRAI gained the power to settle disputes between service providers.

2.TRAI's recommendations to the Central Government are not binding on it.

3.TRAI lays down the quality of service standards that service providers must meet.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: TRAI: Final Rule Widens Voice-and-SMS-Only Prepaid Choices Open full article →

37.

Consider the following statements about the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India's final 2026 rule on prepaid vouchers without data:

1.It requires an 'appropriate' tariff reduction instead of the draft's 'largely proportional' one.

2.The new vouchers are meant to replace prepaid bundles that include data.

3.It comes into force thirty days after its publication in the Official Gazette.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: TRAI: Final Rule Widens Voice-and-SMS-Only Prepaid Choices Open full article →

38.

Under the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997, which one of the following falls outside the jurisdiction of the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT)?

A dispute between two or more telecom service providers A dispute between a service provider and a group of consumers An appeal against a direction, decision or order of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India A complaint of an individual consumer that can be filed before a consumer disputes redressal commission

From: TRAI: Final Rule Widens Voice-and-SMS-Only Prepaid Choices Open full article →

39.

Consider the following statements about the sarus crane (Antigone antigone):

1.It is assessed as Vulnerable on the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.

2.It is listed in Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).

3.It is listed in Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended in 2022.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Sarus Crane: BNHS All-India Survey Scheduled for 10-11 October Open full article →

40.

Consider the following statements about the sarus crane:

1.Mated pairs perform a duet known as the unison call.

2.Only the female incubates the eggs.

3.Juveniles have cinnamon-brown feathers on the head instead of the bare red skin of adults.

4.It is omnivorous, eating items such as sedge tubers, grains, insects and small vertebrates.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only

From: Sarus Crane: BNHS All-India Survey Scheduled for 10-11 October Open full article →

41.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Drainage of small seasonal wetlands threatens the breeding of sarus cranes in India.

Statement-II: Sarus cranes breed mainly during the rains, using shallow wetlands and flooded fields such as paddies.

Statement-III: Sarus cranes are winter visitors to India that breed in Siberia.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I Only one of Statement-II and Statement-III is correct and that is the explanation of Statement-I Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct

From: Sarus Crane: BNHS All-India Survey Scheduled for 10-11 October Open full article →

42.

Consider the following pairs of crane species and their category on the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List:

1.Common crane : Least Concern

2.Black-necked crane : Vulnerable

3.Siberian crane : Critically Endangered

4.Demoiselle crane : Near Threatened

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Only one Only two Only three All four

From: Sarus Crane: BNHS All-India Survey Scheduled for 10-11 October Open full article →

43.

Consider the following statements about the sarus crane:

1.It is the State bird of Uttar Pradesh.

2.Its range extends beyond the Indian subcontinent to mainland Southeast Asia and northern Australia.

3.In India, it is found mainly in the forests of the Western Ghats.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Sarus Crane: BNHS All-India Survey Scheduled for 10-11 October Open full article →

44.

Consider the following statements about Mera Yuva Bharat:

1.It was set up as an autonomous body after approval by the Union Cabinet.

2.It functions under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

3.Its objectives include developing leadership among youth through experiential learning.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: MY Bharat: Youth Parliaments and Yuva Melas at 1,469 Locations Open full article →

45.

Consider the following statements:

1.The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is headquartered in Geneva.

2.The Commission on Narcotic Drugs is a functional commission of the United Nations Economic and Social Council.

3.Since 1991, the Commission on Narcotic Drugs has also served as the governing body of UNODC.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: MY Bharat: Youth Parliaments and Yuva Melas at 1,469 Locations Open full article →

46.

Consider the following statements:

1.Article 47 of the Constitution directs the State to endeavour to prohibit the consumption, except for medicinal purposes, of intoxicating drinks and of drugs injurious to health.

2.Article 47 is a Fundamental Right that can be enforced directly through the Supreme Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2

From: MY Bharat: Youth Parliaments and Yuva Melas at 1,469 Locations Open full article →

47.

Which one of the following is an independent, quasi-judicial expert body established by the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs, 1961?

The Commission on Narcotic Drugs The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime The World Health Organization The International Narcotics Control Board

From: MY Bharat: Youth Parliaments and Yuva Melas at 1,469 Locations Open full article →

48.

Consider the following statements about Part XXI of the Constitution:

1.Article 371B enables a committee of Assam's Legislative Assembly made up of members elected from its tribal areas.

2.Under Article 371, the President can give the Governor of Maharashtra a special responsibility for development boards for Vidarbha and Marathwada.

3.Article 371D applies to both Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Article 371: 371A to 371J Do Not Create a Uniform Special Status Open full article →

49.

Consider the following statements:

1.Article 371-I fixes a minimum strength for the Legislative Assembly of Goa.

2.Goa is the only State whose minimum Assembly strength is fixed in Part XXI.

3.Article 170 otherwise fixes a minimum and a maximum strength for a State Assembly.

4.Under Article 371F, Sikkim's pre-statehood laws continue until a competent authority amends or repeals them.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4

From: Article 371: 371A to 371J Do Not Create a Uniform Special Status Open full article →

50.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: An Act of Parliament on land ownership and transfer does not automatically apply to Nagaland.

Statement-II: Under Article 371A, such Acts apply to Nagaland only if its Legislative Assembly so decides by resolution.

Statement-III: Land is a subject in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I Only one of Statement-II and Statement-III is correct and that is the explanation of Statement-I Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct

From: Article 371: 371A to 371J Do Not Create a Uniform Special Status Open full article →

51.

Under Article 371J, the President can give the Governor of Karnataka a special responsibility for certain matters concerning the Hyderabad-Karnataka region. Which one of the following is NOT among them?

A separate development board for the region The establishment of a university in the region by Parliament Equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure over the region Equitable opportunities for the region's people in public employment, education and vocational training

From: Article 371: 371A to 371J Do Not Create a Uniform Special Status Open full article →

52.

Consider the following provisions of the Constitution:

1.Article 371 (Maharashtra and Gujarat)

2.Article 371A (Nagaland)

3.Article 371C (Manipur)

4.Article 371H (Arunachal Pradesh)

Under how many of the above can the Governor have a special responsibility with respect to law and order?

Only one Only two Only three All four

From: Article 371: 371A to 371J Do Not Create a Uniform Special Status Open full article →

53.

Consider the following statements about Money Bills:

1.A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.

2.The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill within fourteen days, and the Lok Sabha may accept or reject its recommendations.

3.A Money Bill that the Rajya Sabha does not return within fourteen days lapses.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Finance Bill: Article 110 Money Bills and the Rajya Sabha's Role Open full article →

54.

Consider the following statements:

1.If a question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill, the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is final.

2.The President may return a Money Bill to Parliament for reconsideration.

3.A joint sitting of the two Houses cannot be held on a Money Bill.

4.A Bill is not a Money Bill merely because it provides for fines or for fees for licences.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only

From: Finance Bill: Article 110 Money Bills and the Rajya Sabha's Role Open full article →

55.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Bill that contains taxation provisions together with other substantive provisions.

Statement-II: A Bill containing any of the matters listed in Article 110(1)(a) to (f) cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha and needs the President's recommendation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct

From: Finance Bill: Article 110 Money Bills and the Rajya Sabha's Role Open full article →

56.

Consider the following statements:

1.The Contingency Fund of India is placed at the disposal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

2.The salary, allowances and pension of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

3.Expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India is not submitted to the vote of Parliament, although it can be discussed.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Finance Bill: Article 110 Money Bills and the Rajya Sabha's Role Open full article →

57.

Under Article 116 of the Constitution, a vote on account is:

a grant made in advance by the Lok Sabha for part of a financial year, pending the voting of demands and the passing of the Appropriation Act a grant for an unexpected demand whose magnitude or indefinite character prevents it being stated in the usual detail an exceptional grant that forms no part of the current service of any financial year a demand for money spent on a service in excess of the amount granted for that year

From: Finance Bill: Article 110 Money Bills and the Rajya Sabha's Role Open full article →

58.

Consider the following statements about the Airports Authority of India (AAI):

1.Its role is confined to the airports that it owns and operates.

2.It is a statutory body constituted under the Airports Authority of India Act, 1994.

3.It was formed by merging the National Airports Authority and the International Airports Authority of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Airports Authority of India: Air Navigation Role Beyond Terminals Open full article →

59.

Consider the following statements about curative petitions in the Supreme Court:

1.They are governed by the 2002 judgment in Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra.

2.One lies only after a review petition against the judgment is dismissed.

3.It must carry a Senior Advocate's certificate of meeting the set requirements.

4.It is normally heard in open court with oral arguments.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only

From: Airports Authority of India: Air Navigation Role Beyond Terminals Open full article →

60.

Consider the following statements about air navigation services:

1.Air traffic flow management balances traffic demand against available capacity.

2.Enlarging a terminal building by itself raises the number of aircraft movements an airport can handle.

3.Communication, navigation and surveillance systems are the backbone of air traffic services.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Airports Authority of India: Air Navigation Role Beyond Terminals Open full article →

61.

The Global Positioning System (GPS) Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) system, developed jointly by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the Airports Authority of India (AAI), is best described as:

India's own regional constellation of navigation satellites that works independently of GPS a network of ground radars that tracks aircraft over Indian airspace a system that balances the demand for flights with the capacity of airports and airspace a satellite-based augmentation system that corrects GPS errors to give the accuracy and integrity needed in aviation

From: Airports Authority of India: Air Navigation Role Beyond Terminals Open full article →