UPSC Current Affairs Quiz — 15 October 2026

1.

Consider the following statements about the Southern Indian Ocean Fisheries Agreement:

1.It applies to the high seas within its area, not to waters under national jurisdiction.

2.Its Scientific Committee sets the catch quota of each individual fishing company.

3.India, which has approved accession, has so far been only a cooperating non-contracting party with a limited say in decisions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: SIOFA: India, a Non-Contracting Party Since 2022, Set to Accede Open full article →

2.

Measures under the Southern Indian Ocean Fisheries Agreement include the protection of 'vulnerable marine ecosystems'. These are best exemplified by:

coastal mangroves and seagrass beds within a State's territorial sea upwelling zones where nutrient-rich water supports large catches of open-water fish coral atolls that rise above sea level and form low islands cold-water corals, sponge grounds and seamount communities that bottom fishing can damage

From: SIOFA: India, a Non-Contracting Party Since 2022, Set to Accede Open full article →

3.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Deep-sea fishes such as the orange roughy are especially vulnerable to overfishing.

Statement-II: The orange roughy grows very slowly, matures late and can live for more than a century.

Statement-III: The orange roughy gathers in dense spawning aggregations that trawlers can target.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I Only one of Statement-II and Statement-III is correct and that is the explanation of Statement-I Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct

From: SIOFA: India, a Non-Contracting Party Since 2022, Set to Accede Open full article →

4.

Match List I with List II:

List I (Law of the Sea category)

A. Sedentary species

B. Straddling stocks

C. Highly migratory species

D. Marine mammals

List II (Feature)

1.Found within an exclusive economic zone and in adjacent high seas

2.Listed in an annex; tunas are examples

3.Immobile on or under the seabed when harvestable

4.A coastal State can regulate their exploitation more strictly

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2 A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

From: SIOFA: India, a Non-Contracting Party Since 2022, Set to Accede Open full article →

5.

Consider the following statements about illegal, unreported and unregulated (IUU) fishing:

1.It includes fishing by stateless vessels against a regional body's measures.

2.The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) plan of action on it is binding.

3.The FAO Port State Measures Agreement is binding and targets it.

4.On the high seas, a ship is normally under its flag State's exclusive jurisdiction.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only

From: SIOFA: India, a Non-Contracting Party Since 2022, Set to Accede Open full article →

6.

Consider the following statements about the Jeypore ground gecko:

1.It is nocturnal and forages on the forest floor.

2.It is endemic to the northern Eastern Ghats.

3.The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) assesses it as Critically Endangered.

4.It is listed in Appendix II of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only

From: Jeypore Ground Gecko: Four Recorded at Proposed Balda Mine Site Open full article →

7.

The Jeypore ground gecko is classed as Endangered on the Red List of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) on the basis of its range rather than a count of its numbers. This is possible because the Red List criteria:

allow listing on a small range that is severely fragmented or in few locations, with continuing decline assign the Endangered category to every species found in only one country treat a listing under an international wildlife trade convention as proof of endangerment class any species that has gone unrecorded for several decades as Endangered by default

From: Jeypore Ground Gecko: Four Recorded at Proposed Balda Mine Site Open full article →

8.

Bauxite, mined in the Eastern Ghats of Odisha, is the main ore of aluminium. Consider the following statements:

1.Aluminium metal is produced by smelting alumina with coke in a blast furnace.

2.Alumina is extracted from bauxite by digesting it in hot sodium hydroxide solution, in the Bayer process.

3.The alkaline residue left after alumina refining is called red mud.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Jeypore Ground Gecko: Four Recorded at Proposed Balda Mine Site Open full article →

9.

Consider the following statements:

1.Deomali, one of the places where the Jeypore ground gecko was rediscovered, is the highest peak of Odisha.

2.The Jeypore ground gecko was first described as a species new to science from the Balda hills in 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2

From: Jeypore Ground Gecko: Four Recorded at Proposed Balda Mine Site Open full article →

10.

Consider the following statements about habitat fragmentation:

1.Where a species survives only in separate patches, losing one patch can harm it more than its area suggests.

2.Animals in isolated patches often cannot move between them, so a local loss is not easily replaced from elsewhere.

3.Fragmentation increases the share of habitat near edges, where conditions differ from the interior.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Jeypore Ground Gecko: Four Recorded at Proposed Balda Mine Site Open full article →

11.

Consider the following statements about storing hydrogen as a fuel:

1.Compressed-gas storage and cryogenic-liquid storage are both forms of physical storage.

2.In materials-based storage, hydrogen can be held on the surface of a solid or within it.

3.Hydrogen can be kept liquid at room temperature if its tank withstands a high enough pressure.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Magnesium Hydridomethylzincate: Hydrogen and Methane at 80-110 C Open full article →

12.

Magnesium hydridomethylzincate is a crystalline organometallic compound. Consider the following statements:

1.An organometallic compound has at least one direct bond between a metal atom and a carbon atom.

2.Calcium carbonate is an organometallic compound because it contains both a metal and carbon.

3.A ligand is an atom, ion or molecule that binds to a central metal atom or ion.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Magnesium Hydridomethylzincate: Hydrogen and Methane at 80-110 C Open full article →

13.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Storing enough hydrogen for vehicles in a compact space is difficult.

Statement-II: Hydrogen has a very low density, so a useful quantity occupies a large volume at ordinary temperature and pressure.

Statement-III: Hydrogen has a lower energy content per unit mass than petrol.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I Only one of Statement-II and Statement-III is correct and that is the explanation of Statement-I Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct

From: Magnesium Hydridomethylzincate: Hydrogen and Methane at 80-110 C Open full article →

14.

Consider the following statements about hydrogen fuel cells:

1.They convert the chemical energy of hydrogen directly into electricity.

2.With hydrogen as the fuel, their only products are electricity, water and heat.

3.Like batteries, they run down and must be recharged from the electricity grid.

4.Polymer electrolyte membrane fuel cells use a platinum-based catalyst.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4

From: Magnesium Hydridomethylzincate: Hydrogen and Methane at 80-110 C Open full article →

15.

Consider the following statements about the Combined Maritime Forces (CMF):

1.It is a multinational naval partnership headquartered in Bahrain.

2.Its Combined Task Force 154 specialises in maritime security training.

3.Every member must contribute at least one warship to its operations.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: CTF 154: Indian Navy Ends First Command With 7,800 Training Hours Open full article →

16.

Consider the following statements about waterways in the operating area of the Combined Maritime Forces:

1.The Gulf of Oman joins the Persian Gulf through the Bab al-Mandeb.

2.The Bab al-Mandeb links the Red Sea with the Gulf of Aden.

3.Yemen and Djibouti lie on opposite sides of the Bab al-Mandeb.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: CTF 154: Indian Navy Ends First Command With 7,800 Training Hours Open full article →

17.

Under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) and the usage of the International Maritime Organization (IMO), an attack for private ends by one ship on another inside a coastal State's territorial sea is classified as:

piracy, which every State may suppress in any sea area armed robbery against ships, which falls within the coastal State's jurisdiction an act of war, governed by the laws of armed conflict a breach of innocent passage that only the flag State can punish

From: CTF 154: Indian Navy Ends First Command With 7,800 Training Hours Open full article →

18.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: A navy can take part in the training run by Combined Task Force 154 without sending a ship.

Statement-II: The headquarters of the Combined Maritime Forces is co-located with the United States Fifth Fleet in Bahrain.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct

From: CTF 154: Indian Navy Ends First Command With 7,800 Training Hours Open full article →

19.

Consider the following statements about nitrogen fixation in soybean:

1.Bacteria living in its root nodules convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia.

2.The enzyme nitrogenase, which fixes the nitrogen, works best in oxygen-rich conditions.

3.Leghaemoglobin gives active nodules their pink colour and keeps free oxygen low inside them.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: NRC 268 and NRC 270: Soybean Estimate of 20 Quintals a Hectare Open full article →

20.

Consider the following statements about soybean varieties:

1.Soybean is a short-day plant, flowering sooner when nights exceed a critical length.

2.Varieties are recommended zone-wise, as growth responds to day length and temperature.

3.Growing a single variety across the farm is advised to reduce weather risk.

4.Long-duration varieties can out-yield others if irrigated when the monsoon ends early.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 only

From: NRC 268 and NRC 270: Soybean Estimate of 20 Quintals a Hectare Open full article →

21.

Consider the following statements about soybean farming in central India:

1.It is grown mainly as a rainfed kharif crop, sown after the monsoon arrives.

2.Poorly drained fields are unsuitable, so sowing on broad beds with furrows or on ridges is recommended.

3.Soils with excess salts or sodium are unsuitable for it.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: NRC 268 and NRC 270: Soybean Estimate of 20 Quintals a Hectare Open full article →

22.

Consider the following statements about soybean (Glycine max):

1.Like groundnut, it belongs to the legume family Fabaceae.

2.Its seed contains more oil than protein by weight.

3.The de-oiled cake left after oil extraction has been an important export earner.

4.Its compound leaves usually have three leaflets.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4

From: NRC 268 and NRC 270: Soybean Estimate of 20 Quintals a Hectare Open full article →

23.

Consider the following statements about measles, which has recently spread mainly among unvaccinated people in Kozhikode, Keralam (formerly Kerala):

1.It spreads through the air when an infected person breathes, coughs or sneezes.

2.An infected person can pass it on from about four days before the rash appears to four days after.

3.Close contact with a patient rarely infects people who lack immunity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Kozhikode Measles: 161 Confirmed and 116 Suspected Cases in 2026 Open full article →

24.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Under India's routine immunisation schedule, the first measles-rubella dose is given at 9-12 months of age, not at birth.

Statement-II: Antibodies passed from the mother to the baby can neutralise the live vaccine virus and weaken the response to a dose given too early.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct

From: Kozhikode Measles: 161 Confirmed and 116 Suspected Cases in 2026 Open full article →

25.

Consider the following statements about measles:

1.Infection can erase part of the body's existing immune memory against other pathogens.

2.Dogs and monkeys form the natural reservoir from which human outbreaks arise.

3.Koplik spots inside the mouth are a characteristic early sign.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Kozhikode Measles: 161 Confirmed and 116 Suspected Cases in 2026 Open full article →

26.

Consider the following statements about the prevention and care of measles:

1.Vitamin A is recommended for children with measles.

2.Coverage of about 95 per cent with two doses is needed to prevent outbreaks.

3.An additional campaign dose of measles-rubella vaccine can replace the routine scheduled doses.

4.The measles-rubella vaccine contains live attenuated viruses.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only

From: Kozhikode Measles: 161 Confirmed and 116 Suspected Cases in 2026 Open full article →

27.

Consider the following statements:

1.Congenital rubella syndrome results from measles infection during pregnancy.

2.Rubella infection early in pregnancy can cause hearing, eye and heart defects in the baby.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2

From: Kozhikode Measles: 161 Confirmed and 116 Suspected Cases in 2026 Open full article →

28.

Consider the following statements about Phayre's leaf monkey (Trachypithecus phayrei):

1.It is a langur that spends most of its life in trees and feeds mainly on leaves.

2.It is assessed as Endangered by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

3.It is listed in Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended in 2022.

4.It is found only in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4

From: Phayre's Leaf Monkey: Two Photographed in Trishna, South Tripura Open full article →

29.

Consider the following statements about leaf monkeys (langurs) such as Phayre's leaf monkey:

1.Like some New World monkeys, they have prehensile tails that can grip branches.

2.They have complex, multi-chambered stomachs in which bacteria ferment leaves.

3.Unlike macaques, they lack cheek pouches.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Phayre's Leaf Monkey: Two Photographed in Trishna, South Tripura Open full article →

30.

Consider the following statements:

1.Phayre's leaf monkey is the State animal of Tripura.

2.Bison National Park lies within Trishna Wildlife Sanctuary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2

From: Phayre's Leaf Monkey: Two Photographed in Trishna, South Tripura Open full article →

31.

Consider the following statements:

1.Tripura is a landlocked State.

2.Bangladesh borders Tripura on the west, north and south.

3.Manipur and Mizoram are the two Indian States that border Tripura.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one Only two All three None

From: Phayre's Leaf Monkey: Two Photographed in Trishna, South Tripura Open full article →

32.

Consider the following statements about the Central Zoo Authority:

1.It is a statutory body constituted under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

2.No zoo can be operated in India without its recognition.

3.Since the 2022 amendment, the Act's definition of a zoo excludes conservation breeding centres and rescue centres.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Himalayan Musk Deer: India's Recognised Zoos Hold Only Two Males Open full article →

33.

India's recognised zoos were recently reported to hold only two Himalayan musk deer, both male. In conservation breeding, why does a group of 2 males and 18 females carry less genetic diversity forward than a group of 10 males and 10 females?

Mitochondria are inherited from the father, so the young of two males share almost identical mitochondria Mothers pass their genes only to daughters, so the sons of a female-biased group carry male genes alone The eighteen females would together produce fewer young than ten females paired with ten males Each young gets half its nuclear genes from its father, so only two fathers' genes reach the next generation

From: Himalayan Musk Deer: India's Recognised Zoos Hold Only Two Males Open full article →

34.

Consider the following statements about musk deer in India:

1.Musk deer of different areas can be reliably told apart by coat colour alone.

2.The alpine musk deer (Moschus chrysogaster) and Himalayan musk deer (Moschus leucogaster) are separate species.

3.A genetic study identified musk deer sampled at Kedarnath and Nanda Devi in Uttarakhand as Kashmir musk deer (Moschus cupreus).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Himalayan Musk Deer: India's Recognised Zoos Hold Only Two Males Open full article →

35.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Central Zoo Authority must ensure that studbooks are kept for endangered species bred in captivity.

Statement-II: A studbook records each captive animal's parentage and history, so pairings can avoid mating close relatives.

Statement-III: A studbook is a register of wild animals counted in protected-area censuses.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I Only one of Statement-II and Statement-III is correct and that is the explanation of Statement-I Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct

From: Himalayan Musk Deer: India's Recognised Zoos Hold Only Two Males Open full article →

36.

Consider the following statements about adoption in India:

1.Living in a child care institution by itself makes a child legally free for adoption.

2.A surrendered child can be declared legally free for adoption only after a two-month reconsideration period.

3.Prospective adoptive parents register online and undergo a home study before a child is referred to them.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: CARA: Records Must Survive Agency Closures for Root Search Open full article →

37.

Match List I with List II:

List I (Body)

A. Child Welfare Committee

B. District Magistrate

C. Specialised Adoption Agency

D. Central Adoption Resource Authority

List II (Role in adoption)

1.Issues the adoption order

2.Cares for children and handles adoption functions

3.Central authority for intercountry adoption

4.Declares a child legally free for adoption

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

From: CARA: Records Must Survive Agency Closures for Root Search Open full article →

38.

Under the Adoption Regulations, 2022, consider the following statements:

1.An adult adoptee can apply for a root search independently online.

2.An adoptee under 18 can seek a root search only jointly with the adoptive parents.

3.A third party, such as a journalist, can seek a root search for an adoptee.

4.Adoption records are confidential, and adoption orders are not put on public portals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 only

From: CARA: Records Must Survive Agency Closures for Root Search Open full article →

39.

In Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India (2014), the Supreme Court held that:

the right to adopt and to be adopted is a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution adoption by Muslims is barred under every law, because their personal law does not recognise it the juvenile justice law is an enabling law under which any person can adopt, whatever their religion adoption under the 1956 Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act is open to persons of every religion

From: CARA: Records Must Survive Agency Closures for Root Search Open full article →

40.

Consider the following statements about the 1993 Hague Adoption Convention:

1.It applies when a child is to move from one Contracting State to another for adoption.

2.The State of origin must establish that the child is adoptable.

3.The receiving State must find the prospective parents eligible and suited to adopt.

4.It permits paying parents to obtain their consent to adoption.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4

From: CARA: Records Must Survive Agency Closures for Root Search Open full article →

41.

Consider the following statements about Mission Karmayogi:

1.It is meant only for officers of the All India Services.

2.It is the National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB).

3.It seeks to move capacity building from a rules-based to a roles-based approach.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Mission Karmayogi: Roles-Based Civil-Service Learning From 2020 Open full article →

42.

Consider the following pairs:

Institution : Feature

1.Prime Minister's Public Human Resources Council : Apex body chaired by the Prime Minister

2.Capacity Building Commission : Supervises Central Training Institutions

3.Karmayogi Bharat : Government-owned company running the online learning platform

4.Coordination Unit : Headed by the Union Public Service Commission chairman

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Only one Only two Only three All four

From: Mission Karmayogi: Roles-Based Civil-Service Learning From 2020 Open full article →

43.

Consider the following statements about the civil services under the Constitution:

1.Parliament can create a new All India Service once the Rajya Sabha so resolves by two-thirds of members present and voting.

2.Article 309 lets the appropriate legislature regulate the recruitment and service conditions of public servants.

3.The Union Public Service Commission is a statutory body.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Mission Karmayogi: Roles-Based Civil-Service Learning From 2020 Open full article →

44.

Consider the following statements about Mission Karmayogi:

1.It maps civil service posts to a Framework of Roles, Activities and Competencies (FRACs).

2.It builds behavioural, functional and domain competencies of civil servants.

3.The Karmayogi Competency Model was launched in National Learning Week, 2024.

4.Its learning content must all be produced by the Capacity Building Commission.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 only

From: Mission Karmayogi: Roles-Based Civil-Service Learning From 2020 Open full article →

45.

Consider the following statements about the National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP):

1.Its family benefit gives a poor household a lump sum when its breadwinner, aged 18-59, dies.

2.Its pensions depend on contributions that beneficiaries made during their working lives.

3.Its Annapurna component gives free food grains to older persons eligible for, but not getting, an old-age pension.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Divyangjan Pension: Disability Threshold Falls From 80% to 40% Open full article →

46.

Consider the following statements about the disability pension under the National Social Assistance Programme:

1.Its revised threshold of 40 per cent disability matches the benchmark disability defined in the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016.

2.Before the October 2026 revision, it had no minimum age for eligibility.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2

From: Divyangjan Pension: Disability Threshold Falls From 80% to 40% Open full article →

47.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Pensioners under the same component of the National Social Assistance Programme can get different amounts in different States.

Statement-II: Many States and Union Territories add their own top-ups to central assistance.

Statement-III: The central old-age pension rate is higher for those aged 80 and above than for those aged 60-79.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I Only one of Statement-II and Statement-III is correct and that is the explanation of Statement-I Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct

From: Divyangjan Pension: Disability Threshold Falls From 80% to 40% Open full article →

48.

With reference to the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1.Only the Union can provide old-age pensions, as the subject lies in the Union List.

2.'Social security and social insurance' is an entry in the Concurrent List.

3.'Relief of the disabled and unemployable' is an entry in the State List.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Divyangjan Pension: Disability Threshold Falls From 80% to 40% Open full article →

49.

The Union Cabinet has approved new names for components of the National Social Assistance Programme. Consider the following pairs:

1.Old age pension : Pradhan Mantri Vridhavastha Pension Yojana

2.Widow pension : Pradhan Mantri Vidhawa Pension Yojana

3.Disability pension : Pradhan Mantri Parivar Labh Yojana

4.Family benefit : Pradhan Mantri Divyangjan Pension Yojana

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Only one Only two Only three All four

From: Divyangjan Pension: Disability Threshold Falls From 80% to 40% Open full article →

50.

Consider the following statements about Brunei Darussalam:

1.Malaysia is its only land neighbour.

2.Its territory is split into two parts by the Malaysian State of Sarawak.

3.Its highest point, Bukit Pagon, lies in its eastern part.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Brunei: Market Access, Pharmaceuticals at Third Trade Committee Open full article →

51.

Consider the following statements about Brunei Darussalam:

1.It regained full independence from Britain in 1984.

2.It joined the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) in 1984, becoming its sixth member.

3.It is a member of the Commonwealth.

4.Its capital, Bandar Seri Begawan, lies in Temburong district.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4

From: Brunei: Market Access, Pharmaceuticals at Third Trade Committee Open full article →

52.

Brunei hosts a Telemetry, Tracking and Command (TTC) station of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Such a station is mainly used to:

launch small satellites into low Earth orbit broadcast navigation signals to users in place of satellites make weather forecasts for the country in which it is located receive data on a spacecraft's health and position and send commands to it

From: Brunei: Market Access, Pharmaceuticals at Third Trade Committee Open full article →

53.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Brunei has uniformly high temperatures, high humidity and heavy rainfall, with no clearly defined wet season.

Statement-II: Brunei receives almost all its rain from the south-west monsoon between June and September.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct

From: Brunei: Market Access, Pharmaceuticals at Third Trade Committee Open full article →

54.

Under 2023 rules for Centrally Sponsored Schemes, consider the following statements:

1.The central and matching State shares must reach the scheme's nodal account within 30 days of the central share's receipt.

2.Delay beyond 30 days in passing on the central share draws 7 per cent annual interest for the extra days.

3.The penal interest goes to the scheme's nodal account, for spending on the scheme.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Centrally Sponsored Schemes: 2023 Rule on 7% Interest for Delays Open full article →

55.

Under the newer just-in-time model of the Single Nodal Agency system for Centrally Sponsored Schemes, the central share is:

released when a payment to a beneficiary or vendor falls due, without first being parked in a State bank account transferred in full at the start of the year to a bank account of each scheme's nodal agency paid to the States as untied grants that need not be linked to any particular scheme released only after the Comptroller and Auditor General has audited the scheme's entire spending

From: Centrally Sponsored Schemes: 2023 Rule on 7% Interest for Delays Open full article →

56.

Consider the following statements about the Union Budget:

1.Centrally Sponsored Schemes are shown under transfers to States and Union Territories.

2.Finance Commission grants are classified as a type of Centrally Sponsored Scheme.

3.A scheme's budget outlay shows the money provided for it, not the money actually spent.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Centrally Sponsored Schemes: 2023 Rule on 7% Interest for Delays Open full article →

57.

Consider the following statements:

1.Under the Single Nodal Agency system, a State names one agency with a single nodal account for each scheme.

2.The Public Financial Management System handles fund management, e-payment and reconciliation.

3.Notifying a scheme for just-in-time release means its payments have already begun.

4.Payment records alone prove that a scheme has achieved its outcomes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1 and 2 only

From: Centrally Sponsored Schemes: 2023 Rule on 7% Interest for Delays Open full article →

58.

Consider the following statements about Van Dhan Vikas Kendras:

1.A Kendra brings together about 15 self-help groups with up to 300 members.

2.Up to Rs 15 lakh can be sanctioned to the State Government for setting up a Kendra.

3.The Tribal Co-operative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED), which sanctions the funds, works under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Van Dhan Vikas Kendra: Up to Rs 15 Lakh per Centre Under PMJVM Open full article →

59.

Consider the following statements about minor forest produce:

1.The Forest Rights Act, 2006 recognises forest dwellers' ownership of the produce they have traditionally collected.

2.The Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 requires Gram Sabhas and Panchayats to be given its ownership.

3.The Forest Rights Act, 2006 covers only produce collected within village boundaries.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Van Dhan Vikas Kendra: Up to Rs 15 Lakh per Centre Under PMJVM Open full article →

60.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: A minimum support price for minor forest produce guarantees a profit to every Van Dhan Vikas Kendra.

Statement-II: The minimum support price for minor forest produce provides a procurement safety net for the items it covers.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct

From: Van Dhan Vikas Kendra: Up to Rs 15 Lakh per Centre Under PMJVM Open full article →

61.

Consider the following:

1.Bamboo

2.Tendu leaves

3.Lac

4.Teak timber

How many of the above are minor forest produce as defined in the Forest Rights Act, 2006?

Only one Only two Only three All four

From: Van Dhan Vikas Kendra: Up to Rs 15 Lakh per Centre Under PMJVM Open full article →