UPSC Current Affairs Quiz — 20 October 2026

1.

Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN):

1.Its unit of benefit is the landholding family: husband, wife and minor children owning cultivable land as per land records.

2.Its annual benefit of Rs 6,000 is paid in three equal instalments into beneficiaries' bank accounts.

3.The annual amount paid to a family rises with the size of its landholding.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Agri Welfare Portal: One Entry Point to PM-KISAN and Fasal Bima Open full article →

2.

Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) and the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY):

1.PM-KISAN instalments are paid only when a notified crop suffers a loss.

2.PMFBY is voluntary for States and for farmers, including those with crop loans.

3.PMFBY claims depend on the crops and areas notified for cover and on the losses assessed.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Agri Welfare Portal: One Entry Point to PM-KISAN and Fasal Bima Open full article →

3.

Consider the following:

1.Institutional landholders

2.Families in which a member paid income tax in the last assessment year

3.Families in which a member is a former member of a State Legislative Assembly

4.Families in which a member is a serving Group D employee of a State Government department

How many of the above are excluded from the benefit of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN)?

Only one Only two Only three All four

From: Agri Welfare Portal: One Entry Point to PM-KISAN and Fasal Bima Open full article →

4.

Consider the following statements about the Guidelines for Indian Government Websites and Apps (GIGW) 3.0:

1.They rest on usability, user-centricity and universal accessibility.

2.They cover State, district and local government websites and apps as well as Union ones.

3.They draw on the Web Content Accessibility Guidelines (WCAG) 2.1 and the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Agri Welfare Portal: One Entry Point to PM-KISAN and Fasal Bima Open full article →

5.

Consider the following statements:

1.The Guidelines for Indian Government Websites and Apps (GIGW) 3.0 require images to have a text alternative.

2.GIGW 3.0 lets colour alone convey information if the colours contrast strongly.

3.A screen reader reads web content aloud for people who cannot read the screen.

4.A screen magnifier enlarges screen content for people with some types of low vision.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 4 only

From: Agri Welfare Portal: One Entry Point to PM-KISAN and Fasal Bima Open full article →

6.

Consider the following statements about the Naval Innovation and Indigenisation Organisation (NIIO), which runs the Swavlamban seminars:

1.It was set up to give naval end users dedicated structures for working with academia and industry.

2.It has three tiers, with a Naval Technology Acceleration Council giving apex-level direction.

3.It was created as an outcome of the first Swavlamban seminar.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Swavlamban 2026: Fifth Navy Seminar to Release NAUSETU Standards Open full article →

7.

Consider the following statements about Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX):

1.It is run by the Defence Innovation Organisation (DIO), a not-for-profit company under the Department of Defence Production.

2.In return for its grants, the DIO takes equity stakes in the start-ups it supports.

3.The service that sets a problem statement decides independently whether to buy the resulting product.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Swavlamban 2026: Fifth Navy Seminar to Release NAUSETU Standards Open full article →

8.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: In quantum key distribution, an eavesdropper who intercepts the key exchange can be detected.

Statement-II: Measuring a quantum state generally disturbs it, so interception leaves errors the two parties can detect.

Statement-III: Quantum key distribution derives its security from the difficulty of factorising very large numbers.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I Only one of Statement-II and Statement-III is correct and that is the explanation of Statement-I Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct

From: Swavlamban 2026: Fifth Navy Seminar to Release NAUSETU Standards Open full article →

9.

The Naval Unified Systems, Ethernet and Tactical Utilisation (NAUSETU) standards, due for release at Swavlamban 2026, are interface standards. Such standards mainly specify:

the minimum share of indigenous content that a naval product must contain how separate systems connect to and exchange information with one another the maximum grant that a start-up can receive to build a prototype the order in which the Navy will buy the prototypes it has funded

From: Swavlamban 2026: Fifth Navy Seminar to Release NAUSETU Standards Open full article →

10.

Consider the following statements about Homoporus tridentata, a parasitoid wasp recently described from Jammu and Kashmir:

1.The specimens on which its description is based were collected on the University of Kashmir campus at Hazratbal, Srinagar.

2.It is the first species of the genus Homoporus to be recorded from India.

3.Its describers report it as the first record of the genus from northern India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Homoporus tridentata: Genus's First Record From Northern India Open full article →

11.

Match List I (approach to pest control) with List II (method):

A. Conservation biological control

B. Augmentative biological control

C. Classical biological control

D. Mating disruption

1.Natural enemies are imported from the pest's native range

2.Natural enemies already present are protected

3.Purchased or reared natural enemies are released

4.Pheromone confuses males searching for mates

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

From: Homoporus tridentata: Genus's First Record From Northern India Open full article →

12.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Spraying a broad-spectrum insecticide can be followed by a resurgence of the target pest or an outbreak of a secondary pest.

Statement-II: Such insecticides also kill the parasitoids and predators that otherwise keep pest numbers down.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct

From: Homoporus tridentata: Genus's First Record From Northern India Open full article →

13.

With reference to insect parasitoids, consider the following statements:

1.All insect parasitoids are wasps.

2.Some parasitoids attack only a particular stage of their hosts, such as the eggs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2

From: Homoporus tridentata: Genus's First Record From Northern India Open full article →

14.

Consider the following statements about diseases of the coconut palm:

1.Bud rot is caused by Phytophthora palmivora, which also causes black pod disease of cocoa.

2.Root (wilt) is a debilitating but non-lethal disease caused by a phytoplasma.

3.Basal stem rot, also called Thanjavur wilt, is caused by a virus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Tiptur Coconut Palms: Growers Ask Experts Why Crowns Are Falling Open full article →

15.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Destruction of the bud is usually fatal to a coconut palm.

Statement-II: A coconut palm branches freely, forming several growing points along its stem.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct

From: Tiptur Coconut Palms: Growers Ask Experts Why Crowns Are Falling Open full article →

16.

Consider the following statements about oomycetes, the group that includes the coconut bud-rot pathogen:

1.They are classified with diatoms and brown algae among the stramenopiles, not with true fungi.

2.Their cell walls are made mainly of cellulose and other glucans, unlike the chitin-rich walls of true fungi.

3.Their zoospores swim in films of water, so wet conditions favour infection.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one Only two All three None

From: Tiptur Coconut Palms: Growers Ask Experts Why Crowns Are Falling Open full article →

17.

Consider the following statements about managing coconut bud rot:

1.Early cases are treated by removing rotten tissue and applying Bordeaux paste to the wound.

2.In gardens with past outbreaks, healthy nearby palms get a Bordeaux spray before the monsoon.

3.Palms beyond recovery are best left standing to let the infection run its course.

4.Bordeaux mixture is made from copper sulphate and lime.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 only

From: Tiptur Coconut Palms: Growers Ask Experts Why Crowns Are Falling Open full article →

18.

With reference to the Unified Payments Interface (UPI), consider the following statements:

1.Entering a UPI personal identification number (PIN) authorises a payment out of one's bank account.

2.A UPI PIN has to be entered to receive money into one's bank account.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2

From: I4C: Fake Welfare Ads on Facebook, Instagram Ask Victims for Fees Open full article →

19.

Consider the following statements:

1.The National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal covers all cybercrimes, with special focus on crimes against women and children.

2.Marking a lien on defrauded money in a recipient's account amounts to refunding the victim.

3.The Citizen Financial Cyber Fraud Reporting and Management System enables immediate reporting of financial frauds to stop funds being siphoned off.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: I4C: Fake Welfare Ads on Facebook, Instagram Ask Victims for Fees Open full article →

20.

Generative adversarial networks (GANs), a technique used to create deepfakes, work by:

using a single network that only classifies whether an image is real, without generating any content pitting two neural networks against each other, one generating fakes and the other trying to detect them having programmers hand-code every facial movement, frame by frame splicing genuine clips of a person, taken from the internet, without altering them

From: I4C: Fake Welfare Ads on Facebook, Instagram Ask Victims for Fees Open full article →

21.

Social-media advertisements impersonating public figures promise welfare payments, but victims are first told to pay 'taxes', 'registration charges' or 'processing fees' to release them. Such a fraud is best described as:

a Ponzi scheme a pump-and-dump scheme a subscriber identity module (SIM) swap an advance-fee fraud

From: I4C: Fake Welfare Ads on Facebook, Instagram Ask Victims for Fees Open full article →

22.

Consider the following statements about the Information Technology Act, 2000:

1.Section 66C punishes dishonest use of another's password or electronic signature.

2.Section 66D punishes cheating by personation using a computer resource.

3.Section 79 gives intermediaries a conditional safe harbour for third-party content.

4.The Act gives the government no power to block public access to online content.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4

From: I4C: Fake Welfare Ads on Facebook, Instagram Ask Victims for Fees Open full article →

23.

Consider the following statements about pumped-storage schemes as classified by the Central Electricity Authority (CEA):

1.In an on-stream scheme, both reservoirs lie on a river, stream or nallah.

2.In an off-stream open-loop scheme, one reservoir is on such a watercourse and the other on no river or perennial stream.

3.A closed-loop scheme needs no outside water once its reservoirs are first filled.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Pumped Storage: 7.43 GW, but Two Plants Not in Pumping Mode Open full article →

24.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Hydropower stations, including pumped-storage stations, are well suited to restarting a power grid after a blackout.

Statement-II: Hydro units need very little station power to restart, as no fuel preparation or cooling is required.

Statement-III: Water held in a reservoir can drive the turbines without any special preparation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I Only one of Statement-II and Statement-III is correct and that is the explanation of Statement-I Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct

From: Pumped Storage: 7.43 GW, but Two Plants Not in Pumping Mode Open full article →

25.

Consider the following statements about pumped-storage stations and grid operation:

1.Grid frequency tends to fall when electricity demand exceeds generation.

2.A pumped-storage station running in pumping mode adds to the load on the grid.

3.A station listed with pumped-storage capacity can always operate in pumping mode.

4.Pumped-storage stations can provide voltage support to the grid.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 only

From: Pumped Storage: 7.43 GW, but Two Plants Not in Pumping Mode Open full article →

26.

With reference to approvals for pumped-storage projects in India, consider the following statements:

1.Off-stream closed-loop schemes are exempt from Central Electricity Authority (CEA) concurrence only if their capital cost is below a notified limit.

2.Developers of such exempted schemes may still seek technical guidance from the CEA.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2

From: Pumped Storage: 7.43 GW, but Two Plants Not in Pumping Mode Open full article →

27.

Consider the following statements about pumped-storage schemes:

1.Closed-loop schemes generally harm aquatic life less than open-loop ones, as they are not continuously connected to a river.

2.A closed-loop scheme filled from groundwater can affect that groundwater's quality and availability.

3.Their detailed project reports in India must be appraised for geology, foundations and seismic aspects.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Pumped Storage: 7.43 GW, but Two Plants Not in Pumping Mode Open full article →

28.

Consider the following statements about the International Organization of Legal Metrology (OIML):

1.Its International Conference, the highest decision-making body, meets every four years.

2.Its International Committee of Legal Metrology (CIML) has one member for each Member State and meets every year.

3.Its Corresponding Members vote in the Conference on the same footing as Member States.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: CIML: OIML Committee Meets in New Delhi on 26-28 October Open full article →

29.

Consider the following statements:

1.'Establishment of standards of weight and measure' is a Union List entry.

2.'Weights and measures except establishment of standards' is a State List entry.

3.The Legal Metrology Act, 2009 provides for model approval and declarations on pre-packaged commodities.

4.Weights and measures in use are verified periodically by State Government officers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4

From: CIML: OIML Committee Meets in New Delhi on 26-28 October Open full article →

30.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: An International Organization of Legal Metrology (OIML) certificate does not by itself allow an instrument to be sold everywhere.

Statement-II: The OIML Certification System is voluntary, and participating authorities use its results to support their own type approval.

Statement-III: The OIML's secretariat is located in Paris.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I Only one of Statement-II and Statement-III is correct and that is the explanation of Statement-I Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct

From: CIML: OIML Committee Meets in New Delhi on 26-28 October Open full article →

31.

Under the International Organization of Legal Metrology (OIML) Certification System, a 'type evaluation' examines:

every instrument made to a design, before it is sold instruments already in use, at regular intervals during their working life the national primary standards to which all measurements are traced a representative instrument of a design against the relevant OIML Recommendation

From: CIML: OIML Committee Meets in New Delhi on 26-28 October Open full article →

32.

Consider the following statements:

1.The International Bureau of Weights and Measures (BIPM), at Sevres, is the home of the International System of Units (SI).

2.The International Organization of Legal Metrology (OIML) and the BIPM both stem from the Metre Convention of 1875.

3.India joined the OIML decades before Legal Metrology India became an issuing authority under its Certification System.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: CIML: OIML Committee Meets in New Delhi on 26-28 October Open full article →

33.

Consider the following statements about the FASTag Annual Pass for National Highways:

1.It is available only for private, non-commercial cars, jeeps and vans.

2.It is valid at all toll plazas in India, including those on State Highways run by State Governments.

3.It is activated on the vehicle's existing FASTag, without the need to buy a new tag.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Rajmargyatra: Users Can Now Rate Toll Plazas and Add Remarks Open full article →

34.

Consider the following statements about the FASTag Annual Pass and Rajmargyatra:

1.A round trip through the same toll plaza counts as two crossings under the pass.

2.In a closed toll system, a valid entry and exit pair counts as one crossing.

3.Crossings unused when the validity ends carry over to the next pass.

4.Only Annual Pass holders can use Rajmargyatra's Toll Plaza Feedback feature.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one Only two Only three All four

From: Rajmargyatra: Users Can Now Rate Toll Plazas and Add Remarks Open full article →

35.

Consider the following statements:

1.The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) was constituted under the National Highways Act, 1956.

2.The National Highways Act, 1956 empowers the Central Government to levy fees for the use of sections of National Highways.

3.Rajmargyatra serves highway travellers, while the NHAI One application supports the management and monitoring of highway projects.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Rajmargyatra: Users Can Now Rate Toll Plazas and Add Remarks Open full article →

36.

Consider the following statements:

1.Rajmargyatra lets users attach geo-tagged photos or videos to complaints and track them.

2.The 1033 National Highway helpline handles only toll-payment disputes, not emergencies.

3.Rajmargyatra complaints not handled in time are escalated automatically.

4.Rating a toll plaza on Rajmargyatra automatically reverses a disputed FASTag deduction.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

2 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 1 and 3 only

From: Rajmargyatra: Users Can Now Rate Toll Plazas and Add Remarks Open full article →

37.

Consider the following statements about the United Nations Charter:

1.Under Article 39, the Security Council determines threats to the peace and acts of aggression.

2.Article 41 measures exclude armed force and can include cutting economic relations.

3.Under Article 42, the Council can take action by air, sea or land forces.

4.Article 51, on the inherent right of self-defence, lies in Chapter VI.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 only

From: AUSTRAHIND: First New Zealand Observers at Thiruvananthapuram Open full article →

38.

Consider the following statements:

1.Australia shares no land boundary with any other country.

2.The Tasman Sea lies between Australia and New Zealand.

3.The Coral Sea lies off Australia's western coast, opening onto the Indian Ocean.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: AUSTRAHIND: First New Zealand Observers at Thiruvananthapuram Open full article →

39.

Consider the following statements about India-Australia relations:

1.The two countries elevated their ties to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership at a virtual leaders' summit.

2.Their Mutual Logistics Support Arrangement obliges each country to come to the defence of the other if it is attacked.

3.India and Australia are both members of the Quad, along with Japan and the United States.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: AUSTRAHIND: First New Zealand Observers at Thiruvananthapuram Open full article →

40.

Exercise AUSTRAHIND 2026, held at Thiruvananthapuram in Keralam (formerly Kerala), trains for 'Joint Sub-Conventional Operations' in an island and coastal setting under a United Nations Chapter VII mandate. In Indian military usage, sub-conventional operations are mainly those against:

insurgency, terrorism and proxy war, short of full-scale conventional war the regular army of another state in a full-scale conventional war an adversary's nuclear forces, through strategic deterrence an enemy's ports, through a naval blockade in a declared war

From: AUSTRAHIND: First New Zealand Observers at Thiruvananthapuram Open full article →

41.

Consider the following statements about osteoporosis:

1.Bone is living tissue in which old bone is continually broken down and replaced with new bone.

2.Osteoporosis often produces no symptoms until a bone breaks.

3.Taking calcium supplements alone reverses established osteoporosis.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: World Osteoporosis Day: Young Adults' Bone Tests Depend on Risk Open full article →

42.

Consider the following statements about bone mineral density (BMD) scores:

1.A T-score compares BMD with that of a young-adult reference group.

2.A Z-score compares BMD with an age-matched reference.

3.In postmenopausal women and men aged 50 or above, a T-score of -2.5 or less indicates osteoporosis.

4.In men under 50, a low T-score alone is enough to diagnose osteoporosis.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 only

From: World Osteoporosis Day: Young Adults' Bone Tests Depend on Risk Open full article →

43.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Osteoporosis does not occur in men.

Statement-II: The fall in oestrogen around menopause speeds up bone loss in women.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is not correct Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct

From: World Osteoporosis Day: Young Adults' Bone Tests Depend on Risk Open full article →

44.

Consider the following statements about fragility fractures:

1.They result from a force that would not ordinarily break a bone, such as a fall from standing height or less.

2.They occur only in people whose bone density meets the definition of osteoporosis.

3.Hip and vertebral fractures are considered the most serious fragility fractures.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: World Osteoporosis Day: Young Adults' Bone Tests Depend on Risk Open full article →

45.

Consider the following statements about the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis:

1.Some osteoporosis medicines slow bone loss, while others help build new bone.

2.Long-term glucocorticoid use raises the risk of osteoporosis.

3.A heel ultrasound measures bone mineral density exactly as a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry scan does.

4.Balance training helps by lowering the likelihood of falls.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4

From: World Osteoporosis Day: Young Adults' Bone Tests Depend on Risk Open full article →