UPSC Current Affairs Quiz — 19 September 2026

1.

Consider the following statements about Pneumocystis jirovecii:

1.It is a fungus that causes Pneumocystis pneumonia mainly in people whose immune systems are weakened.

2.It is a bacterium that spreads through contaminated food and water.

3.The name Pneumocystis carinii in older literature now refers to a rodent-associated species, not the human pathogen.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Pneumocystis jirovecii: Fungus Gains Resistance to a Transplant Drug Open full article →

2.

Mycophenolic acid, the drug at the centre of the September 2026 study, is:

An antifungal medicine prescribed to kill Pneumocystis An antibiotic used to treat bacterial pneumonia A vaccine that prevents fungal infection An immunosuppressant given after organ transplantation that inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase, an enzyme the fungus also uses

From: Pneumocystis jirovecii: Fungus Gains Resistance to a Transplant Drug Open full article →

3.

Which one of the following best describes the process by which the fungus became resistant to a drug not designed to kill it?

The drug taught the fungus to resist it through a learned response The fungus absorbed resistance genes from human cells Natural selection: conditions created by the drug favoured inherited variants whose enzyme kept functioning, so those variants spread Doctors deliberately bred resistant strains in hospitals

From: Pneumocystis jirovecii: Fungus Gains Resistance to a Transplant Drug Open full article →

4.

Consider the following statements about the September 2026 study:

1.It proved that standard treatment with co-trimoxazole no longer works.

2.It examined 163 samples from six countries and found six mutations in the fungal enzyme gene, four previously unreported.

3.Enzyme experiments showed resistance with all six mutations, and modelling suggested reduced drug binding.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Pneumocystis jirovecii: Fungus Gains Resistance to a Transplant Drug Open full article →

5.

What is the appropriate lesson for transplant recipients from this research?

Prescribed immunosuppression protects the donated organ and should not be stopped because of the study; clinical decisions on prevention and treatment remain with doctors They should discontinue mycophenolic acid immediately They no longer need any preventive medicine against Pneumocystis pneumonia The fungus is now untreatable

From: Pneumocystis jirovecii: Fungus Gains Resistance to a Transplant Drug Open full article →

6.

Consider the following statements about Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary:

1.It lies in the Mandsaur and Neemuch districts of western Madhya Pradesh, adjoining Rajasthan.

2.The Chambal River divides it into eastern and western portions, and the Gandhi Sagar reservoir borders parts of it.

3.Notified in 1974, it covers about 369 sq km, with a fenced area of about 64 sq km holding the cheetahs initially.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary: A Fourth Cheetah for the Chambal Enclosure Open full article →

7.

The September 2026 report about a fourth cheetah for Gandhi Sagar concerned:

A cheetah released into unrestricted habitat outside the sanctuary The possible transfer of a female from Kuno to join three cheetahs already held in enclosures, a move that had not yet taken place The birth of cubs inside the enclosure The arrival of the first cheetahs in India

From: Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary: A Fourth Cheetah for the Chambal Enclosure Open full article →

8.

In wildlife management, 'carrying capacity' means:

The number of animals a transport vehicle can carry The total area enclosed by a fence The number of tourists a reserve admits each day The population a habitat can support under particular ecological conditions, which for a predator depends centrally on prey availability

From: Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary: A Fourth Cheetah for the Chambal Enclosure Open full article →

9.

Consider the following statements about the sanctuary's landscape and wildlife:

1.Rocky surfaces and shallow soils support grassland, scrub and open dry deciduous woodland.

2.It already supports leopards, striped hyenas, wolves, sloth bears, nilgai and chinkara.

3.It was an empty reserve with no large carnivores before the cheetahs arrived.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary: A Fourth Cheetah for the Chambal Enclosure Open full article →

10.

The eco-sensitive zone notified around Gandhi Sagar in December 2016 is best described as:

An enlargement of the fenced cheetah enclosure A zone where every human activity is prohibited A separate regulatory layer that manages specified activities in the surrounding area, not an extension of the cheetah enclosure or a ban on all human activity A tourism zone reserved for safari vehicles

From: Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary: A Fourth Cheetah for the Chambal Enclosure Open full article →

11.

Consider the following statements about Sohar Port:

1.It lies on Oman's northern coast in North Al Batinah, facing the Gulf of Oman, outside the Strait of Hormuz.

2.It was newly constructed in 2026 as a response to shipping disruption at Hormuz.

3.It is managed through a 50:50 joint venture between Oman's Asyad group and the Port of Rotterdam.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Sohar Port: Oman Pitches a Gulf Outlet Beyond the Strait of Hormuz Open full article →

12.

Which one of the following correctly describes the Strait of Hormuz and Oman's position on it?

The strait links the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman; Iran lies on its northern side, while Oman's Musandam peninsula, separated from the rest of Oman by the United Arab Emirates, forms part of its southern side The strait links the Red Sea with the Arabian Sea and Oman lies on its northern side The strait separates Oman from Yemen Oman has no coastline on the approaches to the strait

From: Sohar Port: Oman Pitches a Gulf Outlet Beyond the Strait of Hormuz Open full article →

13.

Why does a port's location outside the Strait of Hormuz not by itself guarantee an alternative outlet for Gulf energy?

Because ports outside the strait cannot handle liquid cargo Because oil or gas produced inside the Persian Gulf still needs a pipeline, overland transport or another shipping arrangement to reach that port Because international law forbids exporting Gulf oil from Oman Because the Gulf of Oman is closed to tankers

From: Sohar Port: Oman Pitches a Gulf Outlet Beyond the Strait of Hormuz Open full article →

14.

Sohar's industrial port differs from a simple harbour in that:

It handles only crude oil tankers It has no facilities for containers It serves only Omani domestic trade It combines container, liquid-bulk and general-cargo terminals with adjacent metals, petrochemical, food and logistics industries and a free zone, so goods can be processed and stored as well as moved

From: Sohar Port: Oman Pitches a Gulf Outlet Beyond the Strait of Hormuz Open full article →

15.

Consider the following statements about Queensland's Fitzroy River:

1.It is the same river as the Fitzroy of Western Australia's Kimberley region.

2.The Dawson and Mackenzie join to form the Fitzroy, which flows through Rockhampton to Keppel Bay near the southern Great Barrier Reef.

3.Its roughly 140,000 sq km catchment has a fan-like shape that makes it prone to severe flooding.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Fitzroy River: Rockhampton Course Endorsed for 2032 Rowing and Canoe Open full article →

16.

On 17 September 2026 Queensland announced that the Rockhampton course on the Fitzroy River had been endorsed by World Rowing and Paddle Worldwide. This endorsement means that:

The Olympic venue is complete and ready for competition Flood risk on the river has been eliminated A technical assessment found the course can provide a safe, fair and consistent field of play for rowing and canoe events, allowing detailed planning and construction to proceed A new ocean barrier will be built for the Games

From: Fitzroy River: Rockhampton Course Endorsed for 2032 Rowing and Canoe Open full article →

17.

Why does the Fitzroy Barrage matter to the proposed racing course?

The course lies upstream of the barrage in an existing freshwater reach, unlike the tidal lower river downstream, giving flatwater conditions different from an open estuary The barrage will be demolished to create the course The barrage generates electricity for the venue The course lies in the tidal estuary below the barrage

From: Fitzroy River: Rockhampton Course Endorsed for 2032 Rowing and Canoe Open full article →

18.

Which one of the following is the correct way to handle public concern about crocodiles at the Fitzroy venue?

By declaring that the risk has disappeared Through location-specific assessment and management of the racing course, since a count for the wider river does not establish the number present at the venue By assuming that wildlife in the catchment makes the venue unusable By counting crocodiles across the whole catchment and applying the total to the course

From: Fitzroy River: Rockhampton Course Endorsed for 2032 Rowing and Canoe Open full article →

19.

A protoplanetary disc is:

A ring of asteroids left after a star dies The flat shape of a spiral galaxy A cloud of comets at the edge of a planetary system A rotating disc of gas and dust around a young star from which planets can form as dust accumulates and massive bodies gather gas

From: Elias 2-24 b: Youngest Known Planet Found Inside Its Natal Disc Open full article →

20.

Consider the following statements about the detection of Elias 2-24 b:

1.A narrow gap seen in the disc by the ALMA array by itself proved that a planet was present.

2.Keck infrared imaging from 2018 and 2020 and Very Large Telescope data helped confirm an object at the gap's location.

3.A coronagraph suppresses part of the star's light so faint nearby objects are easier to detect.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Elias 2-24 b: Youngest Known Planet Found Inside Its Natal Disc Open full article →

21.

The mass of Elias 2-24 b is estimated at roughly 1.9 to 4 times that of Jupiter. This estimate is:

A direct measurement made by weighing the planet's gravitational pull An exact value with no uncertainty Model-dependent, inferred from how a very young object's brightness relates to its age and mass, with material still falling onto the planet able to add light Derived from the planet passing in front of its star

From: Elias 2-24 b: Youngest Known Planet Found Inside Its Natal Disc Open full article →

22.

Which one of the following correctly contrasts the two main explanations for how giant planets form?

In core accretion a solid core builds up first and then gathers a large gaseous envelope, whereas in disc instability a sufficiently unstable disc fragments into self-gravitating clumps In core accretion the planet forms from a collapsing comet, whereas in disc instability it is captured from another star Both describe a planet condensing directly from the star's surface Core accretion applies only to rocky planets and disc instability only to moons

From: Elias 2-24 b: Youngest Known Planet Found Inside Its Natal Disc Open full article →

23.

NASA describes Elias 2-24 b as the youngest known planet detected so far. This claim should be understood as:

Proof that no younger planet exists anywhere A comparison among planets currently identified and characterised, resting on present age estimates that new observations or revised models could change A permanent record that cannot be revised A statement that the planet formed in 2026

From: Elias 2-24 b: Youngest Known Planet Found Inside Its Natal Disc Open full article →

24.

Consider the following statements about the Himalayan monal (Lophophorus impejanus):

1.It is a pheasant of the family Phasianidae in which the male has iridescent plumage and a crest while the female is largely brown.

2.It is the national bird of Nepal and the state bird of Uttarakhand.

3.Its range is confined to Uttarakhand.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Himalayan Monal: Noise Raises the Pitch of Its Calls at Chopta Open full article →

25.

The noise study on monals compared two sites in Uttarakhand's Kedarnath Musk Deer Sanctuary. What did it find?

Birds in the noisier habitat called twice as often Birds in the noisier habitat had stopped calling Birds in both habitats had identical calls Birds in the noisier Chopta habitat used higher peak call frequencies than those in quieter Madmaheshwar, a change in pitch rather than in the number or loudness of calls

From: Himalayan Monal: Noise Raises the Pitch of Its Calls at Chopta Open full article →

26.

Consider the following statements about the conservation status of the Himalayan monal:

1.A Least Concern category proves that every local population is free from disturbance or decline.

2.The State of India's Birds factsheet records it as Least Concern on the global Red List.

3.It is protected under Schedule I of India's Wild Life (Protection) Act.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Himalayan Monal: Noise Raises the Pitch of Its Calls at Chopta Open full article →

27.

Which one of the following is a valid conclusion from the monal acoustics research?

Noise has been proven to cause a population collapse of monals Climate change and noise are the same threat measured by the same study Monals show a measurable vocal response to human-related noise, which justifies attention to the sound environment of sensitive habitats without yet proving reduced breeding success or population decline The birds have adapted completely, so noise no longer matters

From: Himalayan Monal: Noise Raises the Pitch of Its Calls at Chopta Open full article →

28.

Consider the following statements about the North Sea:

1.It lies off north-western Europe, with Great Britain to its west, Norway to the north-east and Denmark to the east.

2.Germany, the Netherlands and Belgium border its southern waters, and the English Channel links it to the Atlantic in the south-west.

3.The Skagerrak and Kattegat connect it eastwards towards the Baltic Sea.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: North Sea: Greensand Future Opens Offshore CO2 Storage at Nini West Open full article →

29.

Greensand Future, inaugurated on 18 September 2026, is designed to:

Receive captured carbon dioxide at Esbjerg, transport it by ship and inject it into the depleted Nini West oil reservoir beneath the Danish North Sea Release captured carbon dioxide into open seawater to be absorbed Generate electricity from an offshore oilfield Extract remaining oil from Nini West using carbon dioxide

From: North Sea: Greensand Future Opens Offshore CO2 Storage at Nini West Open full article →

30.

Consider the following statements about Greensand's storage figures:

1.The European agency's figure of 2.4 million tonnes over eight years is a multi-year project total, not an annual injection rate.

2.The operator describes an initial capacity of up to 400,000 tonnes a year with ambitions for later expansion.

3.Planned capacity is the same thing as the quantity actually stored.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: North Sea: Greensand Future Opens Offshore CO2 Storage at Nini West Open full article →

31.

Why is the claim that Greensand is 'Europe's first commercial offshore CO2 storage facility' described as needing careful boundaries?

Because Greensand has not injected any carbon dioxide Because Norway's Sleipner project has stored carbon dioxide beneath the North Sea since 1996, so the claim concerns a particular EU commercial configuration and scale, not the first geological storage ever Because carbon storage is prohibited under EU law Because the project is located in the Baltic Sea

From: North Sea: Greensand Future Opens Offshore CO2 Storage at Nini West Open full article →

32.

Which one of the following correctly explains why captured carbon dioxide is not automatically equal to the same quantity of net emissions avoided?

Because carbon dioxide loses mass when liquefied Because all stored carbon dioxide returns to the atmosphere within a year Because ships are not allowed to carry carbon dioxide Capture, liquefaction and transport use energy, the origin of the carbon and any leakage affect the result, and fossil-derived and biological carbon dioxide have different accounting implications

From: North Sea: Greensand Future Opens Offshore CO2 Storage at Nini West Open full article →

33.

Consider the following statements about the Next-Generation Missile Vessels:

1.The keel of the first vessel, BY 531, was laid at Cochin Shipyard on 18 September 2026.

2.The contract for six vessels was signed with the Ministry of Defence in March 2023 at a cost of about Rs 9,805 crore.

3.Keel laying means the ship has been launched and commissioned into the Navy.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Next-Generation Missile Vessels: First Keel Laid at Cochin Shipyard Open full article →

34.

In naval terms, 'sea denial' means:

Closing a port to all commercial shipping Refusing to allow foreign warships into territorial waters Making it dangerous or difficult for an opponent to use a maritime area, which is different from exercising complete control of that area for every purpose Removing all naval vessels from an area

From: Next-Generation Missile Vessels: First Keel Laid at Cochin Shipyard Open full article →

35.

The announced equipment of the vessels includes surface-to-surface missiles, anti-missile defences, air-surveillance radars and fire-control radars. How do the two radar types differ?

Surveillance radars build awareness of surrounding activity, while fire-control radars provide the more precise tracking needed to engage a target with a weapon Surveillance radars detect submarines, while fire-control radars detect aircraft Fire-control radars steer the ship, while surveillance radars aim the guns There is no difference; the names are interchangeable

From: Next-Generation Missile Vessels: First Keel Laid at Cochin Shipyard Open full article →

36.

Consider the following statements about the propulsion arrangement:

1.GE Aerospace is supplying LM2500 gas-turbine kits, with assembly and testing involving Hindustan Aeronautics Limited in Bengaluru.

2.Because the vessels are built in India, every component on board is of Indian origin.

3.An Indian-built vessel can combine foreign-origin machinery, licensed production and Indian integration.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Next-Generation Missile Vessels: First Keel Laid at Cochin Shipyard Open full article →

37.

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of stages for a warship after keel laying?

Commissioning, launch, trials, fitting out Sea trials, keel laying, launch, delivery Delivery, launch, fitting out, steel cutting Further assembly, launch, fitting out, harbour and sea trials, delivery and commissioning

From: Next-Generation Missile Vessels: First Keel Laid at Cochin Shipyard Open full article →

38.

Consider the following statements about the sugar stockholding decision of 18 September 2026:

1.The limit on sugar bought from the open market was also doubled to 30 days.

2.Bulk consumers may now hold up to 30 days of consumption instead of 15.

3.The stock held beyond the first 15 days must come exclusively from sugar imported under the Advance Authorisation Scheme or a Tariff Rate Quota.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Advance Authorisation Scheme: Sugar Stock Limit Raised to 30 Days Open full article →

39.

The Advance Authorisation Scheme, administered by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade, normally allows:

Duty-free import of any commodity for unrestricted sale in the domestic market Free transfer of imported materials to any buyer once the goods arrive Duty-free import of inputs that will be physically incorporated into an export product, subject to an export obligation, input-output norms and an actual-user condition A cash subsidy for exporters

From: Advance Authorisation Scheme: Sugar Stock Limit Raised to 30 Days Open full article →

40.

A Tariff Rate Quota (TRQ) is:

An arrangement in which imports within a specified quantity face one tariff, typically lower, while imports beyond that quantity face a different, higher tariff A complete ban on imports above a quota An export-linked duty exemption identical to advance authorisation A tax on domestic producers who exceed a production quota

From: Advance Authorisation Scheme: Sugar Stock Limit Raised to 30 Days Open full article →

41.

A bulk consumer uses ten tonnes of sugar a day. Under the September 2026 decision, which one of the following is correct?

It may buy 300 tonnes from the open market It may hold only 150 tonnes from any source It may import sugar without any customs conditions It may hold up to 300 tonnes in total, but no more than 150 tonnes of that can come from the open market; the rest must be imported sugar under the specified routes

From: Advance Authorisation Scheme: Sugar Stock Limit Raised to 30 Days Open full article →

42.

Consider the following statements about the Rajasthan High Court matter:

1.The court has granted the sub-quota and suspended appointments under the ST category.

2.The petition seeks a 9 per cent sub-quota for the Bhil community within the state's 12 per cent Scheduled Tribe reservation.

3.The court issued notices seeking responses from the state and other authorities.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Bhil Tribe: Rajasthan HC Weighs a 9% Sub-Quota Within ST Reservation Open full article →

43.

Which one of the following correctly separates the two constitutional questions raised by the Bhil petition?

Both questions are decided by the state legislature alone Article 342 fixes the percentage of reservation in each state Article 342 governs which communities are recognised as Scheduled Tribes for a state, whereas the petition concerns how benefits are distributed among communities already on the list The petition asks to add the Bhils to the Scheduled Tribe list

From: Bhil Tribe: Rajasthan HC Weighs a 9% Sub-Quota Within ST Reservation Open full article →

44.

Consider the following statements about State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh (2024):

1.The majority permitted sub-classification within Scheduled Castes under constitutional conditions.

2.It required a rational basis linked to the measure's objective, with evidence of disadvantage and inadequate representation.

3.The judgment itself created a Bhil quota in Rajasthan.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

From: Bhil Tribe: Rajasthan HC Weighs a 9% Sub-Quota Within ST Reservation Open full article →

45.

Which one of the following statements about the Bhil community is correct?

The Bhils live only in Rajasthan The Bhils are a single uniform community with one occupation everywhere The Bhils are not recognised as a Scheduled Tribe in any state Bhil communities are spread across Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra, with varied local histories, and the Ministry of Tribal Affairs groups several related names such as Bhilala, Barela, Pawra and Vasava in its census tables

From: Bhil Tribe: Rajasthan HC Weighs a 9% Sub-Quota Within ST Reservation Open full article →